Biblical answers to common questions about faith, doctrine, and Christian living.
A sincere reader wants to know whether or not Judas was "predestined" to betray Christ. He feels that certain New Testament passages suggest that he was. This week's Question discusses this issue.
A significant group of misguided souls alleges that the "grace" of Jesus Christ has dispensed with the need for "law." This "antinomian" ideology is designed to throw the mantle of fellowship around those who have not obeyed the Lord in the process of becoming a Christian. The adversarial conflict that some see between "grace" and "law" is false.
Critics of the Bible allege that the apostle Matthew made a mistake when he suggested "Judea" was "beyond the Jordan" (Mt. 19:1). Is there any way to legitimately exonerate the apostle from this charge? Study this problem with us.
Some claim there is a mistake in Luke's record of Christ's initial post-resurrection appearance to his apostles. The historian mentions "the eleven," when there were only ten. Judas was dead, and Thomas was not present. How is this problem to be resolved?
A question was submitted about the resurrection. The inquirer concluded that "made alive" (in passages like Romans 6:3-8 and Colossians 2:11-12) is parallel in thought to Paul's discussion of the resurrection of the body in 1 Corinthians 15. In response, we consider a number of points concerning the New Testament doctrine on the resurrection.
Is "faith" a gift of God that is bestowed independent of man's freedom of choice? In a recent article we argued that such is not the case. In view of our dispute of the Calvinistic position, a courteous critic asks for an explanation of Hebrews 12:2, and the divine affirmation that Jesus is the "Author" of "our faith."
Is a Saturday-night observance of the Lord's Supper just as good as observing it on the Lord's Day?
Is the book of Job an historical account? Or is it a fiction invented to teach a valuable lesson?
A critic, who believes that "speaking in tongues" is a gift available in this age, believes he has detected a flaw in our position that the gift of tongues was restricted to the first century. Based upon his view of 1 Corinthians 13:8ff, he argues that if "tongues" are obsolete, then "knowledge" should be as well. Since we still have knowledge, it is claimed, tongues remain as well. Here is our response to the gentleman's objection.
Based upon a misunderstanding of Ephesians 2:8, some argue that "faith" is a gift from God, and that it is not, therefore, a condition of salvation. This theory is the offspring of Calvinism. This week's question explores this issue.
The prophet Jeremiah made a startling prophecy regarding king Jeconiah, the next-to-last king ruling in Judah (Jer. 22:30). Was the prophecy fulfilled, or did Jeremiah err in his prediction?
There are those who allege that Jesus Christ did not have an eternal existence; rather, they claim, he was originally created by God, the Father. One passage that supposedly supports this view is Revelation 3:14. But does it? Study this text with us.
There are some who teach that the wicked will not be required to endure an "eternal punishment" (see Mt. 25:46) in hell. They argue that since "hell" is the "second death," and as "death" is to be "destroyed," it follows that hell will be destroyed ultimately. In this week's Question and Answer segment, Wayne Jackson responds to this fallacious argument.
How would it be possible for one to be happy in heaven, knowing that some of his loved ones are suffering in hell? This is a question that every thoughtful Christian has pondered at times. Is there a reasonable solution to this problem?
One of the most controversial contexts in the book of Acts has to do with Paul's activity in the Jerusalem temple, as recorded in Acts 21. Did the apostle violate the law of God in "purifying" himself in that ritual? Some so claim, but is this a necessary conclusion?
Is there a reasonable explanation for John's statement that the deeds of Christ could not fit into all of the world's books (Jn. 21:25)?
How does the Bible student discern the difference between passages that contain figurative language, and those that strictly are literal? There is much confusion in the religious world regarding this issue. Read this article and learn some of the interpretative principles that are involved in correct Bible study on this matter.
In 1 Corinthians 14, Paul mentions those who, when speaking in tongues, utter "mysteries." Does this phraseology support the idea that these tongues are not human languages, but, instead, special "ecstatic" tongues?
Is the Bible a historically dependable book? If not, why should one trust it in redemptive matters? The fact is, however, the Scriptures have been demonstrated to be trustworthy in countless details. This week's Question/Answer briefly addresses this issue.
Did God cause people to lie by sending "lying spirits" to deceive?
